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Madness at the NSE
Metasploit
#751 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 9:39:01 AM
Rank: Veteran

Joined: 3/26/2012
Posts: 985
Location: Dar es salaam,Tanzania
murchr wrote:
sparkly wrote:
murchr wrote:
Quick question, Do you think that CGT will slow down selling hence making the price of some entities to go up?


Prices are determined by demand and supply. If CGT kills supply, prices go up. If it kills demand, prices collapse.

We might have the latter, IMO.


I tend to think people will hold. Liquidity will be costly


I like your thinking Murchr,That is a possibility

“The pessimist complains about the wind; the optimist expects it to change; the realist adjusts the sails.”
theking
#752 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 10:19:21 AM
Rank: Member

Joined: 1/25/2010
Posts: 344
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents
mkonomtupu
#753 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 11:00:25 AM
Rank: Veteran

Joined: 2/10/2010
Posts: 1,001
Location: River Road
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


The theory is that if you bought your shares in the 1990's when they were dirt cheap CGT uses the year of purchase as the base year to calculate the 5% capital gains. It is much easier to sell and buy back to make 2014 your base year for CGT
theking
#754 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 11:25:08 AM
Rank: Member

Joined: 1/25/2010
Posts: 344
mkonomtupu wrote:
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


The theory is that if you bought your shares in the 1990's when they were dirt cheap CGT uses the year of purchase as the base year to calculate the 5% capital gains. It is much easier to sell and buy back to make 2014 your base year for CGT


it'll still be more expensive to sell and buy back even if the shares were free. do the math
sparkly
#755 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 11:40:43 AM
Rank: Elder

Joined: 9/23/2009
Posts: 8,083
Location: Enk are Nyirobi
theking wrote:
mkonomtupu wrote:
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


The theory is that if you bought your shares in the 1990's when they were dirt cheap CGT uses the year of purchase as the base year to calculate the 5% capital gains. It is much easier to sell and buy back to make 2014 your base year for CGT


it'll still be more expensive to sell and buy back even if the shares were free. do the math


Sell to another company that you own. The second company will still be able to deduct brokerage paid. Bear in mind that CGT applies for longterm purchases.
Life is short. Live passionately.
sparkly
#756 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 11:51:46 AM
Rank: Elder

Joined: 9/23/2009
Posts: 8,083
Location: Enk are Nyirobi
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


Think simple. If you sell pre CGT, CGT=0. If you sell post CGT, CGT= 25,000. Brokerage paid is a recoverable cost while CGT isn't.
Life is short. Live passionately.
streetwise
#757 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 12:03:03 PM
Rank: Veteran

Joined: 6/23/2011
Posts: 1,740
Location: Nairobi
I totally agree with you.

When one sells to avoid CGT the implication is that they can tell what will happen to the share in 2015 i.e. become cheaper. In which case you sell any way and buy in 2015.

CGT is just an excuse and simplicity in analysis in the selling behaviour.

One needs to compare what happens each end of year and then a trend may appear
theking
#758 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 12:24:01 PM
Rank: Member

Joined: 1/25/2010
Posts: 344
sparkly wrote:
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


Think simple. If you sell pre CGT, CGT=0. If you sell post CGT, CGT= 25,000. Brokerage paid is a recoverable cost while CGT isn't.


my point is not selling, my point is selling to buy back, doesn't make economic sense even if BP is 0
The optimist
#759 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 1:50:19 PM
Rank: Member

Joined: 6/14/2010
Posts: 521
Location: Nairobi
theking wrote:
mkonomtupu wrote:
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


The theory is that if you bought your shares in the 1990's when they were dirt cheap CGT uses the year of purchase as the base year to calculate the 5% capital gains. It is much easier to sell and buy back to make 2014 your base year for CGT


it'll still be more expensive to sell and buy back even if the shares were free. do the math

I think MkonoMtupu's theory makes sense. If I bought shares back in the 90s at those rock bottom prices, I'd simply sell and buy back pre-CGT.
MaichBlack
#760 Posted : Tuesday, December 30, 2014 2:39:36 PM
Rank: Elder

Joined: 7/22/2009
Posts: 7,836
The optimist wrote:
theking wrote:
mkonomtupu wrote:
theking wrote:
i totally disagree with the theory that people are selling stocks pre-CGT and buy them back post-CGT. doesn't make economic sense.

say u bought 10,000 shares of stock X at 50/=, current price is 100/=. if you sell that stock pre-CGT, cost incurred (brokerage fee) is say 2% of the revenue which is 10,000*100*0.02=10,000/=. If you decide to buy back the same shares post=CGT, you'll incur another 2% cost of brokerage of 10,000/=. total cost 20,000/=.

the other scenario is holding onto the shares and selling them post-CGT. costs incurred in this case will be the 10,000/= brokerage fee,plus 5% CGT. profit will be (10,000*100/=)minus(10,000*50/=)=50,000/= less brokerage fee of 10,000/=,net profit of 40,000/=.CGT will be 0.05*40,000=2,000/=. total cost incurred 12,000/= compared to 20,000/= above. also please note that i have not deducted the brokerage fee for buying the shares which should further reduce the taxable profit
#my2cents


The theory is that if you bought your shares in the 1990's when they were dirt cheap CGT uses the year of purchase as the base year to calculate the 5% capital gains. It is much easier to sell and buy back to make 2014 your base year for CGT


it'll still be more expensive to sell and buy back even if the shares were free. do the math

I think MkonoMtupu's theory makes sense. If I bought shares back in the 90s at those rock bottom prices, I'd simply sell and buy back pre-CGT.

Is the CGT being back dated? I doubt! How do you tax gains that were made before the tax was operational. That would not make sense and would be grounds for numerous court cases. But this is Kenya. anything is possible and people in certain offices are bloody lazy!!!

Have they decided on the base year in any case? Last I heard, brokers were saying they didn't have records on when shares were bought and at how much!
Never count on making a good sale. Have the purchase price be so attractive that even a mediocre sale gives good returns.
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