I wish we could! In the word's of Snoop he said "pussy broke the president (in refn: to Bill) n' pussy made the pimp rich!

Desperate times call for desperate measures.Have you considered joining the muslim faith?the terms of marriage are very man-friendly; you have access to atleast 4 airports, your house is safe etc.Start wearing a kanzu and an arafat ocassionally,and introduce yourself to a potential wife material as a muslim,and if solemnize(is that the word) your marriage under kadhi.u'll be home and dry.you need not practice islam after this. AM NOT A MUSLIM.

Don't sweat the small stuff. She will keep the house. Worry about the shirt on your back.

The Constitution provides that parties to marriage are entitled to equal rights at the time of the marriage, during the marriage and at the dissolution of the marriage.

This does not mean that the parties are entitled to 50% or any percentage just by virtue of their marriage. It could mean that they have an equal right to acquire and deal with property. There were days (long gone I think) when a woman had to get her husband’s consent in order to transact in property matters. It may not have been in the law but banks would require a husband to “o.k” the transaction, even when he was not paying or making contributions towards the mortgage. In many cases, the property would have to be registered in joint names.

The constitutional provision simply tells us that this should no longer be the case. Both husband and wife have equal rights to acquire property. Independently. Each party must show their contribution towards the acquisition of that property.

However, you will only know the real position after someone’s wife goes to court to ask for an “equal” share of a house and the shirt. So let’s wait for the courts – they’ve been producing very whacky opinions on cases touching on the new constitution.

For property acquired during marriage, the entitlement is 50/50 even if one party does not have a receipt of the money they paid for it.... eg, the wife can say she was paying school fees for the kids while you paid for the land/house/whatever property and is also entitled.... or she washed your shirts when you went to sign the contracts... However, for property acquired before marriage, it remains the property of the person who acquired it and the other party will not be entitled to a share of it.(if i understood one lawyer's explanation on one of the radio stations).

Question is, assuming what i understood is correct, what happens when the man acquires the land and the wife helps in building the house and they divorce? Will the worth of the house be calculated less the value of land? Apologies to digress but i think its an important question.